Wednesday, May 27, 2009
39 - Daycare anaesthetic agents
1. Alfentanyl
2. Propofol
3. Isoflurane (congener)
4. Midazolam
5. Mivacurium
6. Sevoflurane
Wednesday, March 18, 2009
38 - AIIMS november 2006 anaesthesia mcqs
1q: which of the following drugs produces dissociative anaesthesia ?
a. ketamine
b. propofol
c. thiopentone
d. enflurane
2q: which of the following in anaesthesia will produce decreased EEG activities ?
a. hypothermia
b. early hypoxia
c. ketamine
d. N2O
3q: which of the following is not true about xenon anaesthesia ?
a. non explosive
b. minimal cardiovascular side effects
c. slow induction and slow recovery
d. low blood gas solubility
Tuesday, March 17, 2009
37 - AIIMS may 2006 anaesthesia mcqs
a. thiopentone
b. ketamine
c. propofol
d. diazepam
2q: in general , the last muscle to be rendered akinetic with a retrobulbar anaesthetic block is ?
a. superior rectus
b. superior oblique
c. inferior oblique
d. levator palpebrae superioris
3q: which of the following is the neuromuscular blocking agent with the shortest onset of action ?
a. mivacurium
b. vecuronium
c. rapacuronium
d. succinyl choline
4q: which of the following fluorinated anaesthetics corrodes metal in vaporizers and breathing systems ?
a. sevoflurane
b. enflurane
c. isoflurane
d. halothane
5q: which of the following inhalational agents has the minimum blood gas solubility coefficient ?
a. isoflurane
b. sevoflurane
c. desflurane
d. nitrous oxide
6q: the following anaesthetic drug causes pain on intravenous administration ?
a. midazolam
b. propofol
c. ketamine
d. thiopentone sodium
7q: which of the following drugs is contraindicated in a patient with raised intracranial pressure ?
a. thiopentone
b. propofol
c. midazolam
d. ketamine
8q: which one of the common side effects is seen with fentanyl ?
a. chest wall rigidity
b. tachycardia
c. pain in abdomen
d. hypertension
9q: which one of the following is the description used for the term allodynia during pain management ?
a. absence of pain perception
b. complete lack of pain sensation
c. unpleasant sensation with or without stimulus
d. perception of an ordinary non noxious stimulus as severe pain
36 - AIIMS november 2005 anaesthesia mcqs
1q: bradycardia is common after injection of ?
a. midazolam
b. succinyl choline
c. dopamine
d. isoprenaline
2q: with regard to ketamine , all of the following are true except ?
a. it is a direct myocardial depressant
b. emergence phenomena are more likely if anticholinergic premedication is used
c. it may induce cardiac dysarrythmias in patients receiving tricyclic antidepressants
d. it has no effect on intracranial pressure
3q: which of the following is not a cardiovascular monitoring technique ?
a. transesophageal echocardiography
b. central venous pressure monitoring
c. pulmonary artery catheterization
d. capnography
4q: placement of a double lumen tube for lung surgery is best confirmed by ?
a. EtCO2
b. Airway pressure measurement
c. Clinically by auscultation
d. Bronchoscopy
5q: the most sensitive and practical technique for detection of myocardial ischemia in the perioperative period is ?
a. magnetic resonance spectroscopy
b. radio labeled lactate spectroscopy
c. direct measurement of end diastolic pressure
d. regional wall motion abnormality detected with the help of 2D transesophageal echocardiography
6q: the most common cause of hypoxia during one lung ventilation is ?
a. malposition of the double lumen tube
b. increased shunt fraction
c. collapse of one lung
d. soiling of lung by secretions
7q: a 30 year old woman with coarctation of aorta is admitted to the labour room for elective caesarean section . which of the following is the anaesthesia technique of choice?
a. spinal anaesthesia
b. epidural anaesthesia
c. general anaesthesia
d. local anaesthesia with nerve blocks
8q: a 5 year old child is suffering from cyanotic heart disease. He is planned for corrective surgery. The induction agent of choice would be ?
a. thiopentone
b. ketamine
c. halothane
d. midazolam
9q: while introducing the swan-ganz catheter , its placement in the pulmonary artery can be identified by the following pressure tracing
a. diastolic pressure is lower in pulmonary artery than in right ventricle
b. diastolic pressure is higher in pulmonary artery than in right ventricle
c. pulmonary artery pressure tracing has diacrotic notch from closure of pulmonary valve
d. RV pressure tracing for plateau and sharp drop in early diastole
10q: the outcome following resuscitation of a cardiac arrest is worsened if during resuscitation patient is given ?
a. ringer’s lactate
b. colloids
c. 5 % dextrose
d. Whole blood transfusion
11q: a 6 month old child is suffering from patent ductus arteriosus ( PDA ) with congestive cardiac failure. Ligation of ductus arteriosus was decided for surgical management. The most appropriate inhalational anaesthetic agent of choice with minimal hemodynamic alteration for induction of anaesthesia is ?
a. sevoflurane
b. isoflurane
c. enflurane
d. halothane
35 - AIIMS may 2005 anaesthesia mcqs
1q: a patient was administered epidural anaesthesia with 15 ml of 1.5 % . lignocaine with adrenaline for hernia surgery. He developed hypotension and respiratory depression within 3 minutes after administration of block. The most common cause would be ?
a. allergy to drug administered
b. systemic toxicity to drug administered
c. patient got vasovagal shock
d. drug has entered the subarachnoid space
2q: all of the following drugs are recommended for treatment of beta blocker induced excessive bradycardia and/or decrease in cardiac output , except ?
a. dopamine
b. dobutamine
c. glucagon
d. calcium chloride
3q: sodium nitroprusside infusion may result in ?
a. hypertension
b. pulmonary edema
c. cyanide toxicity
d. heart block
4q: the most common cause of mortality and morbidity in patients undergoing major vascular surgery is ?
a. renal complications
b. thromboembolic phenomenon
c. coagulopathies
d. cardiac complications
5q: the drug which is not suitable for patients with acute porphyria for intravenous induction is ?
a. thiopentone sodium
b. propofol
c. midazolam
d. etomidate
6q: the most common rhythm disturbance during early postoperative period is ?
a. bradycardia
b. ventricular fibrillation
c. tachycardia
d. complete heart block
7q: the physiological dead space is decreased by ?
a. upright position
b. positive pressure ventilation
c. neck flexion
d. emphysema
8q: which one of the following device provides fixed performance oxygen therapy ?
a. nasal cannula
b. venturi mask
c. O2 by T-piece
d. Edinburgh mask
9q: which one of the following local anaesthetics is highly cardio-toxic ?
a. lignocaine
b. procaine
c. mepivacaine
d. bupivacaine
34 - AIIMS november 2004 anaesthesia mcqs
1q: a 52 year old male diagnosed as triple vessel coronary artery disease with poor left ventricular function. Coronary artery bypass grafting surgery was decided. During maintenance of anaesthesia which one of the following agents should be preferred ?
a. IV opioids
b. Isoflurane
c. Halothane
d. Nitrous oxide
2q: which of the following produces the least drainage to blood elements ?
a. disc oxygenator
b. membrane oxygenator
c. bubble oxygenator
d. screen oxygenator
3q: trendelenburg position produces decrease in all of the following except ?
a. vital capacity
b. functional residual capacity
c. compliance
d. respiratory rate
4q: which one of the following statements regarding desflurane is correct ?
a. it causes severe myocardial depression
b. it is a structural analogue of isoflurane
c. it has very high blood and tissue-gas partition coefficients
d. it is metabolically unstable
5q: all of the following drugs are eliminated by kidney except ?
a. pancuronium bromide
b. atracurium besylate
c. vecuronium bromide
d. pipecuronium
6q: which of the following does not represent a significant anaesthetic problem in the morbidly obese patient ?
a. difficulties in endotracheal intubation
b. suboptimal arterial oxygen tension
c. increased metabolism of volatile agents
d. decreased cardiac output relative to total body mass
7q: all of the following statements are incorrect about the treatment of prolonged suxamethonium apnoea due to plasma cholinesterase deficiency ( after a single dose of suxamethonium ) except ?
a. reversal with incremental doses of neostigmine
b. continue anaesthesia and mechanical ventilation till recovery
c. transfusion of fresh frozen plasma
d. plasmapheresis
33 - AIIMS may 2004 anaesthesia mcqs
1q: the neuromuscular blocking action of curare is brought about by ?
a. blocking aceylcholine synthesis
b. preventing the release of acetylcholine
c. causing persistent depolarization
d. competitive inhibition
2q: which of the following local anaesthetic is most likely to produce an allergic reaction?
a. prilocaine
b. ropivacaine
c. etidocaine
d. benzocaine
3q: a 6 year old child is posted for elective urology surgery under general anaesthesia. He refuses to allow the anaesthesiologist an IV access. The best inhalational agent of choice for induction of anaesthesia is ?
a. sevoflurane
b. methoxyflurane
c. desflurane
d. isoflurane
4q: a 70 year old male is posted for a surgery, which is likely to last for 4-6 hours. The best inhalational agent of choice for maintenance of anesthesia in such a case is ?
a. ether
b. methoxyflurane
c. trichloroethylene
d. desflurane
5q: a 30 year old lady is to undergo surgery under intravenous regional anaesthesia for her left trigger finger. Which of the following should not be used for this patient ?
a. lignocaine
b. bupivacaine
c. prilocaine
d. lignocaine + ketorolac
6q: a 21 year old lady with a history of hypersensitivity to neostigmine is posted for an elective caesarean section under general anaesthesia. The best muscle relaxant of choice in this patient should be ?
a. pancuronium
b. atracurium
c. rocuronium
d. vecuronium
32 - AIIMS november 2003 anaesthesia mcqs
1q: which of the following is not an amide ?
a. lidocaine
b. procaine
c. prilocaine
d. etidocaine
2q: which of the following inhalational agent is contraindicated in a patient with history of epilepsy ?
a. isoflurane
b. enflurane
c. halothane
d. sevoflurane
3q: laryngeal mask airway ( LMA ) is used for ?
a. maintenance of airway
b. facilitating laryngeal surgery
c. prevention of aspiration
d. removing oral secretions
4q: all of the following are suitable circuits for both controlled and assisted ventilation except ?
a. mapleson A
b. mapleson B and C
c. mapleson D
d. mapleson E
5q: at the end of anaesthesia after discontinuation of nitrous oxide and removal of endotracheal tube , 100 % oxygen is administered to the patient to prevent ?
a. diffusion hypoxia
b. second gas effect
c. hyperoxia
d. bronchospasm
31 - AIIMS may 2003 anaesthesia mcqs
1q: following spinal subarachnoid block a patient develops hypotension . this can be managed by all of the following means except ?
a. lowering the head end
b. administration of 1 liter of ringer lactate before the block
c. vasopressor drug like methoxamine
d. use of ionotrope like dopamine
2q: which of the following is the shortest acting intravenous analgesic ?
a. remifentanyl
b. fentanyl
c. alfentanyl
d. sufentanyl
3q: the following combination of agents are the most preferred for short day care surgeries ?
a. propofol, fentanyl, isoflurane
b. thiopentone sodium, morphine, halothane
c. ketamine, pethidine, halothane
d. propofol, morphine, halothane
4q: during laryngoscopy and endo-tracheal intubation which of the following maneuver is not performed ?
a. flexion of the neck
b. extension of the head at the atlanto-occipital joint
c. the laryngoscope is lifted upwards levering over the upper incisors
d. in a straight blade laryngoscope, the epiglottis is lifted by the tip
5q: the administration of succinyl choline to a paraplegic patient led to the appearance of dysarrythmias , conduction abnormalities and finally cardiac arrest. The most likely cause is ?
a. hypercalcemia
b. hyperkalemia
c. anaphylaxis
d. hypermagnesemia
6q: in a young patient who had extensive soft tissue and muscle injury, which of these muscle relaxants used for endotracheal intubation might lead to cardiac arrest ?
a. atracurium
b. suxamethonium
c. vecuronium
d. pancuronium
7q: a patient was administered epidural anaesthesia with 15 ml of 1.5 % lignocaine with adrenaline for hernia surgery. He developed hypotension and respiratory depression within 3 minutes after administration of the block. The commonest cause would be ?
a. allergy to drug administered
b. systemic toxicity to drug administered
c. patient got vasovagal shock
d. drug has entered the subarachnoid space
8q: pin index system is a safety feature adopted in anaesthesia machines to prevent ?
a. incorrect attachment of anaesthesia machines
b. incorrect attachment of anaesthesia face masks
c. incorrect inhalation agent delivery
d. incorrect gas cylinder attachment
9q: the pin index code of nitrous oxide is ?
a. 2,5
b. 1,5
c. 3,5
d. 2,6
10q: the ideal muscle relaxant used for a neonate undergoing porto-enterostomy for biliary atresia is ?
a. atracurium
b. vecuronium
c. pancuronium
d. rocuronium
11q: in a 2 months old infant undergoing surgery for biliary atresia , you would avoid one of the following anaesthetic ?
a. thiopentone
b. halothane
c. propofol
d. sevoflurane
12q: all of the following factors decrease the minimum alveolar concentration ( MAC ) of an inhalational anaesthetic agent except ?
a. hypothermia
b. hyponatremia
c. hypocalcemia
d. anemia
13q: visual analogue scale ( VAS ) most widely used to measure ?
a. sleep
b. sedation
c. pain intensity
d. depth of anaesthesia
14q: the narrowest part of larynx in infants is at the cricoid level . in administering anaesthesia this may lead to all except ?
a. choosing a smaller size endotracheal tube
b. trauma to subglottic region
c. post operative stridor
d. laryngeal oedema
15q: regarding neonatal circumcision , which one of the following is true ?
a. it should be done without anaesthesia , as it is hazardous to give anaesthesia
b. it should be done without anaesthesia, as neonates do not perceive pain as adults
c. it should be done under local anaesthesia only
d. general anaesthesia should be given to neonate for circumcision as they also feel pain as adults .
30 - AIIMS november 2002 anaesthesia mcqs
1q: rapid induction of anaesthesia occurs with which of the following inhalational anaesthetics ?
a. isoflurane
b. halothane
c. desflurane
d. sevoflurane
2q: a 5 year old child is scheduled for strabismus ( squint ) correction . induction of anaesthesia is uneventful. After conjunctival incision as the surgeon grasps the medial rectus the anaesthesiologist looks at the cardiac monitor. Why do u think he did that ?
a. he wanted to check the depth of anaesthesia
b. he wanted to be sure that the BP did not fall
c. he wanted to see if there was an oculocardiac reflex
d. he wanted to make sure there was no ventricular arrythmias which normally accompany incision
3q: which muscle relaxant increases intracranial pressure ?
a. mivacurium
b. atracurium
c. suxamethonium
d. vecuronium
4q: which of the following inhaled gases is used to decrease pulmonary artery pressure in adults and infants ?
a. nitrous oxide
b. nitrogen dioxide
c. nitric oxide
d. nitrogen
5q: the use of succinyl choline is not contraindicated in ?
a. tetanus
b. closed head injury
c. cerebral stroke
d. hepatic failure
6q: a 6 year old boy is scheduled for examination of the eye under anaesthesia . the father informed that for the past six months , the child is developing progressive weakness of both legs. His elder sibling had died at age of 14 years. Which drug would you definitely avoid during the anaesthetic management ?
a. succinyl choline
b. thiopentone
c. nitrous oxide
d. vecuronium
7q: which of the following statement is not correct for vancuronium ?
a. it has high incidence of cardiovascular side effects
b. it has short duration of neuromuscular block
c. in usual doses the dose adjustment is not required in kidney disease
d. it has high lipophilic property
8q: the topical use of which of the following local anaesthetics is not recommended ?
a. lignocaine
b. bupivacaine
c. cocaine
d. dibucaine
9q: during surgery for aortic arch aneurysm under deep hypothermic circulatory arrest which of the following anaesthetic agent administered prior to circulatory arrest that also provides cerebral protection ?
a. etomidate
b. thiopental sodium
c. propofal
d. ketamine
10q: in volume cycled ventilation the inspiratory flow rate is set at ?
a. 140-160 L/min
b. 110-130 L/min
c. 60-100 L/min
d. 30-50 L/min
29 - AIIMS may 2002 anaesthesia mcqs
1q: about diagnosing air embolism with transesophageal echocardiography, which of the following is false ?
a. it can quantify the volume of air embolised
b. it is a very sensitive investigation
c. continuous monitoring is needed to detect air embolism
d. interferes with Doppler when used together
27 - AIIMS may 2001 anaesthesia mcqs
1q: a patient who was on aspirin for a long period was selected for an elective surgery . what should be done ?
a. infusion of platelet concentrate
b. infusion of fresh frozen plasma
c. stop aspirin for 7 days
d. go ahead with surgery maintaining adequate hemostasis
2q: a patient selected for surgery who was induced with thiopentone IV through one of the antecubital veins complains of severe pain of whole hand. The next line of management is ?
a. give I.V. ketamine through same needle
b. give I.V.propofol through same needle
c. leave it alone
d. give I.V.lignocaine through same needle
3q: in high spinal anaesthesia what is seen ?
a. hypertension and bradycardia
b. hypertension and tachycardia
c. hypotension and bradycardia
d. hypotension and tachycardia
4q: a patient in the ICU was on invasive monitoring with intraarterial cannulation through the right radial artery. For the last 3 days later he developed swelling and discoloration of the right hand . the next line of management is ?
a. brachial block
b. stellate ganglion block
c. application of lignocaine jelly over the site
d. radial nerve block on the same side
26 - AIIMS november 2000 anaesthesia mcqs
1q: after hyperventilating for sometime holding the breath is dangerous because ?
a. decrease CO2 shift the O2 dissociation curve to the left
b. alkalosis can lead to tetany
c. it can lead to CO2 narcosis
d. due to lack of stimulation by CO2, anoxia can go into dangerous levels
25 - AIIMS june 2000 anaesthesia mcqs
1q: hyperkalemia due to scoline is seen in all except ?
a. muscular dystrophy
b. crush injury
c. abdominal sepsis
d. burns
2q: 5 year old child going for sitting craniotomy , while positioning in O.T developed end tidal CO2 –zero mm Hg, PO2 – 80 mm Hg implies that ?
a. venous air embolism
b. left lung collapse
c. endotracheal tube in oesophagus
d. endotracheal tube blocked with secretions
3q: a 5 year old boy suffering from duchenne muscular dystrophy and polymyositis has been fasting for 8 hours and has to undergo tendon lengthening procedure , which anaesthetics should be used ?
a. induction by I.V.scoline and N2O halothane for maintenance
b. induction by I.V.propofol , N2O and O2 for maintenance
c. induction by I.V. thiopentone and H20 and halothane for maintenance
d. inhalational N2O ,halothane and O2 for maintenance
23 - AIIMS june 1999 anaesthesia mcqs
1q: administration of scoline produces dangerous hyperkalemia in ?
a. paraplegia
b. fracture femur
c. raised intracranial pressure
d. acute renal failure
2q: an unconscious patient of head injury comes in casualty . examination shows raised intracranial pressure . which anaesthetic agent is contraindicated ?
a. propofol
b. ketamine
c. etomidate
d. thiopentone sodium
22 - AIIMS december 1998 anaesthesia mcqs
1q: phase 2 block is seen in ?
a. halothane
b. ether
c. d-tubocurare
d. suxamethonium
2q: raised intracranial tension is seen with the use of ?
a. ketamine
b. fentanyl
c. thiopentone
d. halothane
3q: site of action of epidural analgesia ?
a. cortex
b. substantia gelatinosa
c. ventral horn
d. sensory nerve ending
4q: inducation agent for day care surgery is ?
a. ketamine
b. diazepam
c. thiopentone
d. propofol
21 - AIIMS june 1998 anaesthesia mcqs
1q: muscle relaxant excreted exclusively by kidney is ?
a. scoline
b. atracurium
c. vecuronium
d. gallamine
2q: shortest acting non depolarizing muscle relaxant is ?
a. vecuronium
b. atracurium
c. succinyl choline
d. mivacurium
3q: lowest concentration of anaesthetic agent in pulmonary alveoli needed to produce immobility in response to painful stimulus in 50 % individual is termed as ?
a. minimal alveolar concentration
b. maximum alveolar concentration
c. maximum analgesic concentration
d. maximum analgesic concentration
20 - AIIMS december 1997 anaesthesia mcqs
1q: malignant hyperthermia is caused by ?
a. halothane
b. cyclopropane
c. suxamethonium
d. ether
2q: anaesthetic agent causing hallucination is ?
a. ketamine
b. ether
c. nitrous oxide
d. cyclopropane
3q: vasoconstriction is seen with ?
a. lignocaine
b. cocaine
c. idiotocaine
d. bupivacaine
4q: sallick’s manouvre is used for ?
a. to reduce dead space
b. to prevent alveolar collapse
c. to prevent gastric aspiration
d. to facilitate assisted respiration
19 - AIIMS june 1997 anaesthesia mcqs
1q: stages of anaesthesia were established by ?
a. ether
b. nitrous oxide
c. cyclopropane
d. chloroform
2q: best antagonist of morphine is ?
a. pentazocine
b. bupernorphine
c. naloxone
d. nalorphine
3q: anaesthetic agent causing raised intracranial tension is ?
a. etoruidal
b. ketamine
c. ether
d. nitrous oxide
4q: hepatotoxic anaesthetic agent is ?
a. ketamine
b. ether
c. nitrous oxide
d. halothane
5q: nephrotoxic anaesthetic agent is ?
a. halothane
b. isoflurane
c. methoxyflurane
d. nitrous oxide
18 - AIIMS february 1997 anaesthesia mcqs
1q: which is not compatible with soda lime ?
a. halothane
b. ether
c. N2O
d. Trilene
2q: thiopentone is contraindicated in ?
a. acute intermittent porphyria
b. inducation of general anaesthesia
c. CHF
d. GI disease
3q: best anaesthesia for status asthamticus ?
a. thiopentone
b. ether
c. ketamine
d. N2O
17 - AIIMS september 1996 anaesthesia mcqs
1q: which of the following increases intracranial tension ?
a. thiopentone
b. ketamine
c. halothane
d. propofol
2q: which of the following causes hallucination ?
a. ether
b. halothane
c. ketamine
d. thiopentone
3q: most potent antiemetic agent used in preoperative period is ?
a. glycopyrrolate
b. hyoscine
c. atropine
d. metoclopramide
16 - AIIMS december 1995 anaesthesia mcqs
1q: intraarterial injection of thiopentone causes ?
a. hypotension
b. necrosis of vessel wall
c. vasodilatation
d. vasospasm
2q: endotracheal intubation is contraindicated in ?
a. fracture mandible
b. short neck
c. CSF rhinorrhea
d. Fracture cervical spine
3q: muscle relaxant contraindicated in renal failure is ?
a. atracurium
b. d-tubocurarine
c. vecuronium
d. gallamine
15 - AIIMS may 1995 anaesthesia mcqs
1q: which gas is most commonly used in laparascopy ?
a. O2
b. CO2
c. N2O
d. N2
14 - AIIMS december 1994 anaesthesia mcqs
1q: best anaesthetic agent for outpatient anaesthesia is ?
a. fentanyl
b. morphine
c. alfentanil
d. pethidine
2q: regarding rebreathing prevention valve , incorrect is ?
a. should be as far as possible from the patient
b. should be light
c. suitably designed
d. installed at expiratory end of the tube
3q: which does not cause bronchospasm after anaesthesia ?
a. regurgitation
b. aspiration
c. postintubation
d. halothane
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